Ultimate Guide to Prepare Free Medical Technology PTC-AMCA Exam Questions & Answer [Q141-Q156]

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Ultimate Guide to Prepare Free Medical Technology PTC-AMCA Exam Questions and Answer

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NEW QUESTION # 141
In therapeutic drug monitoring, sample collection timing is MOST critical for:

  • A. Phenobarbital
  • B. Ethanol
  • C. Aminoglycosides
  • D. Digoxin

Answer: C

Explanation:
Collection timing is most critical for monitoring therapeutic drugs with short half-lives, such as the aminoglycosides. Timing is less critical for testing for levels of drugs with longer half-lives such as phenobarbital or digoxin, and even less so for ethanol, or blood alcohol, testing.


NEW QUESTION # 142
The most plentiful electrolyte in serum or plasma is:

  • A. Potassium
  • B. Calcium
  • C. Chloride
  • D. Sodium

Answer: D

Explanation:
Sodium is the most plentiful electrolyte in serum or plasma.


NEW QUESTION # 143
The hydrogen breath test is most often used to test for:

  • A. Irritable bowel syndrome
  • B. Small-intestine bacterial overgrowth
  • C. Lactose intolerance
  • D. H. pylori infection

Answer: C

Explanation:
The hydrogen breath test is most often used to test for lactose intolerance. Typically, exhaled breath contains very little hydrogen. However, if there is a problem with the digestion of lactose or other carbohydrates (such as fructose), bacteria in the colon ferment the carbohydrates, and this produces hydrogen. The hydrogen is absorbed into the systemic circulation and sent to the lungs, then it is exhaled. Higher than normal levels of hydrogen suggest a problem with carbohydrate metabolism.


NEW QUESTION # 144
What percentage of the blood is composed of plasma?

  • A. 55%
  • B. 65%
  • C. 35%
  • D. 45%

Answer: A

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 145
Waived tests are:

  • A. CLIA-designated tests that are fairly simple and carry a low risk of error
  • B. Tests that are not required for a specific diagnosis
  • C. Tests that cannot be carried out by phlebotomists
  • D. Complex tests that require special handling

Answer: A

Explanation:
Waived tests are Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-designated tests that are fairly simple and carry a low risk of error, so they are generally reliable if carried out properly and if the equipment is in operating condition. Most point-of-care (POC) tests are waived, although not all are. Phlebotomists may only carry out POC tests that are waived. Waived POC tests may be used in the home environment. For example, glucometers are used by both healthcare providers and patients to monitor blood sugar.


NEW QUESTION # 146
Abnormal bone development caused by a lack of vitamin D in the diet is known as:

  • A. Rickets
  • B. Arthritis
  • C. Osteomyelitis
  • D. Osteochondritis

Answer: A

Explanation:
Rickets usually occurs in children and is marked by abnormal or "soft" bones. It is caused by a lack of vitamin D in the diet. Arthritis is an inflammatory condition of the joints, osteochondritis is an inflammation of the bone and cartilage, and osteomyelitis is inflammation of the bone or bone marrow caused by bacterial infection.


NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following activities is allowed in the laboratory?

  • A. Smelling chemicals
  • B. Drinking fluids
  • C. Telephoning
  • D. Pipetting by mouth

Answer: C

Explanation:
Telephoning such as to report a test result is allowed in the laboratory, although personal calls should not be made during working hours. Drinking and eating are prohibited in the lab. Other prohibitions include handling contact lenses, storing food for human consumption, pipetting by mouth, and smoking. Mechanical pipettes must be used because of the risk of ingesting substances when pipetting by mouth. Chemicals should never be tasted or smelled because of the risk of toxicity.


NEW QUESTION # 148
The hemoglobin A1c POC test reflects the average blood glucose level for the previous:

  • A. 2-3 months
  • B. 5 weeks
  • C. 7-10 days
  • D. 2-3 days

Answer: A

Explanation:
The hemoglobin A1c point-of-care (POC) test reflects the average blood glucose level for the previous 2-3 months. Glucose attaches to hemoglobin A in RBCs and remains for the life of the cells. The typical life of an RBC is approximately 120 days. Hemoglobin A1c is a better predictor of glucose control and the possibility of diabetes complications than serum glucose is. The normal value for hemoglobin A1c is less than 5.7%.


NEW QUESTION # 149
Control runs of automated systems should be carried out:

  • A. At the beginning of each day
  • B. Weekly
  • C. Monthly
  • D. At the end of each day

Answer: A

Explanation:
Control runs of automated systems should be carried out at the beginning of each day to ensure that the equipment is fully operational. Automated systems carry out laboratory tests with little input from personnel once the equipment is loaded with the appropriate samples. Automated systems may produce errors; therefore, close monitoring is essential. Routine maintenance should be carried out on a scheduled basis. Maintenance may include cleaning spills, changing reagents, discarding waste, changing parts as needed, and making adjustments.


NEW QUESTION # 150
Which tube type is the most frequent source of carryover contamination?

  • A. EDTA tubes
  • B. Heparin tubes
  • C. Coagulation tubes
  • D. PTTtests

Answer: A

Explanation:
EDTA tubes are more frequently associated with carryover contamination than any other types of additives, while heparin is associated with the least amount of interference. Coagulation tubes, which contain sodium citrate, are the first to be filled because all other additives interfere with coagulation tests. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) tests are affected by tissue thromboplastin contamination.


NEW QUESTION # 151
The laboratory test that is most affected by hemolysis is:

  • A. Ca
  • B. Acid phosphatase
  • C. TP
  • D. K

Answer: B

Explanation:
Of the laboratory tests listed, the test that is most affected by hemolysis is K (potassium). Other tests that are equally affected include LH (lactate dehydrogenase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), and the CBC (complete blood count). Fe (serum iron), ALT (alanine aminotransferase, and T4 (thyroxine) are also noticeably affected. Tests that are only mildly affected include P (phosphorous), TP (total protein), albumin, Mg (magnesium), Ca (calcium), and acid phosphatase.


NEW QUESTION # 152
After collecting a blood sample, a tube containing sodium citrate as an additive should be inverted:

  • A. 3-4 times
  • B. 4-6 times
  • C. 1-3 times
  • D. 5-10 times

Answer: A

Explanation:
After collecting a blood sample, a tube containing sodium citrate as an additive should be inverted 3-4 times rather than the 5-10 times required of other additives. Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant that binds to calcium, preventing blood clotting. Sodium citrate is preferred for coagulation tests (partial thromboplastin time [PTT] and activated partial thromboplastin time [aPTT]) because it best preserves coagulation factors. Tubes that contain sodium citrate have light- blue colored stoppers or black stoppers in special tubes used for the erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Shaking or inverting too much may activate the platelets, resulting in a shortened coagulation time.


NEW QUESTION # 153
Which of the following statements regarding special blood collection procedures is FALSE?

  • A. A heparin lock may be left in the vein for 48 hours.
  • B. Coagulation studies cannot be drawn from a heparin lock
  • C. An implanted port should be covered with a bandage.
  • D. Venipuncture cannot be performed on an AV shunt

Answer: C

Explanation:
An implanted port is attached to an indwelling line and should not be covered with a bandage. A heparin lock is a special type of cannula that can be left in the patient's vein for up to 48 hours; however, coagulation studies should not be drawn from a heparin lock. Arteriovenous (AV) shunts are usually created to provide access for dialysis. Venipuncture should not be performed on an AV shunt.


NEW QUESTION # 154
A biohazard sign at the entrance to the laboratory that lists the laboratory's biosafety level as 3 (BSL-3) means that the lab studies infectious agents that:

  • A. Pose a risk if inhaled, swallowed, or exposed to the skin
  • B. Are airborne, lethal, and for which there is no effective treatment
  • C. Do not consistently cause human disease
  • D. Are airborne and could potentially cause lethal disease

Answer: D

Explanation:
A biohazard sign at the entrance to the laboratory that lists the laboratorys biosafety level as 3 (BSL-3) means that the lab handles infectious agents that are airborne and could potentially cause lethal disease, such as COVID-19 and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The biosafety levels are:
*BSL-I: Infectious agents do not consistently cause disease.
*BSL-2: Infectious agents pose a risk if inhaled, swallowed, or exposed to the skin.
*BSL-3: Infectious agents are airborne and could potentially cause lethal disease.
*BSL-4: Infectious agents are airborne, lethal. and no effective treatment is available.


NEW QUESTION # 155
Protective isolation may be required for all of the following patients EXCEPT:

  • A. Burn patients
  • B. Infants
  • C. Neutropenic chemotherapy patients
  • D. AIDS patients

Answer: B

Explanation:
Protective isolation, or reverse isolation, may be required for patients who are highly susceptible to infection, such as burn patients, patients with AIDS, or chemotherapy patients with a low neutrophil count. Protective isolation is usually not required for infants.


NEW QUESTION # 156
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